Can anyone tell me if a 2.73 to 1 rear end ratio is more economical than a
3.73to1? What is the formula for figuring the ratios? I checked my car and the drive shaft turns about 2 and 3/4 turns to 1 for the wheel. Would that make it be a 2.73 to 1? Appreciate your help. Lou
You got it right. A 2.73 rear end would theoretically be more economical, if you do a lot or driving at a constant speed. You get more speed but less power from a 2.73. More power (torque) but less speed from a 3.73.
tom S.
You will get better mileage with the 2.73 to 1.
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