So basically, am I obliged to provide the insurers with a receipt or disclose how much I paid? Because I thought I would be offered a market rate that would enable me to buy another identical car.
TIA
The value paid out should not be affected by the amount paid for the car. A "good" (ie not cheap no frills) policy should pay out as follows:
- A1 "Glasses" book value to replace the car. They may shave a little off initially in order to leave room for a second offer.
- They would only deduct on the basis of stated fact - ie known mileage, evidence of previous accident damage by claims assessors. They cannot just "assume" that your car is average or that the state of the car is reflected in the price.
I bought my first car - an 8 year old Metro - covered in rust and with torn seats - in 1995 for £300. It was written off a year later. Endsleigh very kindly paid me £1500 for it. They could easily have got away with paying less, but automatically paid the "book" value without any had evidence to suggest that it was not an A1 car.
ISTR reading that Glasses will have a lower A1 value than the "book" price in Parkers etc. because Glasses is based on final sale price (ie after all the haggling), whereas the others are based on screen prices. The car that says £6500 on your dealer's forecourt may go for as little as £6k once someone has haggled or been given a generous p/ex allowance. It would be shown as £6500 in Parkers but £6000 in Glasses. I may be incorrect on this though.
Russell